it missed the entirety of MAS's hypothesis and the essence of my own reply. He's trying to build a case for the theory that Black people have a genetic mutation that makes them more prone to anti-social behavior...
My reply suggests that in actuality there might be a stronger rationale for shifting attention toward malignant genetic mutations among White people, due to their history of enormous anti-social transgressions (e.g. Nazi Holocaust; U.S. Slavery, and European Imperialism (seizing property and resources of other lands)...you somehow let that fly right by you...can't refute it?...or can't comprehend it?...which is it?
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