How many times do I have to explain this? Hydroxychloroquine was proven ineffective in RCTs of hospitalized patients. Unlike Merck's and Pfizer's "new" drug, no RCTs were ever performed on vulnerable patients given hydroxychloroquine well before potential hospitalization is necessary.
Why weren't these RCTs performed? The observational data, as Drs. Risch and Fareed have pointed out, overwhelmingly show h/z/a works incredibly well when given at the same time the new drugs are said to work. This is basic logic.