So how will this work since the constitution specifically states that impeachment must be for high crimes or misdemeanors?
Obviously, this is political, but is this something that can later will be reversed by the SCOTUS as being unconstitutional?
I believe that the Dems dropped more specific charges that were outlined in the Constitution because they knew that they didn’t have the evidence (bribery, extortion). By choosing a nonspecific “abuse of power” which has no specific criteria, they are able to avoid the problem that they have with a lack of evidence of an actual crime.
The more that I think about it, the precedent set by the Dems with these unconstitutional “crimes” will be such a potential harm to the future functioning of the Republic, that I wonder of the SCOTUS will have to step in.
I am not a legal expert, but I foresee huge problems from this. Not from the meaningless impeachment which will never stick in the Senate, but from the charges that they are using and the precedent they are setting.
These charges will be leveled at every opportunity against future presidents whenever she/it/he does not control the House and when a bitter argument arises.
That is what a “high crime and misdemeanor” is - a crime against the state.
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